27 C.F.R. Subpart C—Administrative and Miscellaneous Provisions
Title 27 - Alcohol, Tobacco Products and Firearms
(a) The Director is authorized to prescribe all forms required by this part. All of the information called for in each form shall be furnished as indicated by the headings on the form and the instructions on or pertaining to the form. In addition, information called for in each form shall be furnished as required by this part. (b) Requests for forms should be mailed to the ATF Distribution Center, 7943 Angus Court, Springfield, Virginia 22153. [T.D. ATF–92, 46 FR 46916, Sept. 23, 1981, as amended by T.D. ATF–249, 52 FR 5961, Feb. 27, 1987; T.D. 372, 61 FR 20724, May 8, 1996] (a) Alternate methods or procedures. The permittee or licensee, on specific approval by the Director as provided by this paragraph, may use an alternate method or procedure in lieu of a method or procedure specifically prescribed in this part. The Director may approve an alternate method or procedure, subject to stated conditions, when he finds that: (1) Good cause is shown for the use of the alternate method or procedure; (2) The alternate method or procedure is within the purpose of, and consistent with the effect intended by, the specifically prescribed method or procedure and that the alternate method or procedure is substantially equivalent to that specifically prescribed method or procedure; and (3) The alternate method or procedure will not be contrary to any provision of law and will not result in an increase in cost to the Government or hinder the effective administration of this part. Where the permittee or licensee desires to employ an alternate method or procedure, he shall submit a written application to the regional director (compliance), for transmittal to the Director. The application shall specifically describe the proposed alternate method or procedure and shall set forth the reasons for it. Alternate methods or procedures may not be employed until the application is approved by the Director. The permittee or licensee shall, during the period of authorization of an alternate method or procedure, comply with the terms of the approved application. Authorization of any alternate method or procedure may be withdrawn whenever, in the judgment of the Director, the effective administration of this part is hindered by the continuation of the authorization. As used in this paragraph, alternate methods or procedures include alternate construction or equipment. (b) Emergency variations from requirements. The Director may approve construction, equipment, and methods of operation other than as specified in this part, where he finds that an emergency exists and the proposed variations from the specified requirements are necessary and the proposed variations: (1) Will afford security and protection that are substantially equivalent to those prescribed in this part; (2) Will not hinder the effective administration of this part; and (3) Will not be contrary to any provisions of law. Variations from requirements granted under this paragraph are conditioned on compliance with the procedures, conditions, and limitations set forth in the approval of the application. Failure to comply in good faith with the procedures, conditions, and limitations shall automatically terminate the authority for the variations and the licensee or permittee shall fully comply with the prescribed requirements of regulations from which the variations were authorized. Authority for any variation may be withdrawn whenever, in the judgment of the Director, the effective administration of this part is hindered by the continuation of the variation. Where the licensee or permittee desires to employ an emergency variation, he shall submit a written application to the regional director (compliance) for transmittal to the Director. The application shall describe the proposed variation and set forth the reasons for it. Variations may not be employed until the application is approved, except when the emergency requires immediate action to correct a situation that is threatening to life or property. Corrective action may then be taken concurrent with the filing of the application and notification of the Director via telephone. (c) Retention of approved variations. The licensee or permittee shall retain, as part of his records available for examination by ATF officers, any application approved by the Director under this section. The Director shall compile a list of explosive materials, which shall be published and revised at least annually in the [T.D. ATF–290, 54 FR 53054, Dec. 27, 1989, as amended by T.D. ATF–446, 66 FR 16602, Mar. 27, 2001] (a) Any ATF officer may enter during business hours the premises, including places of storage, of any licensee or holder of a user permit for the purpose of inspecting or examining any records or documents required to be kept under this part, and any facilities in which explosive materials are kept or stored. (b) Any ATF officer may inspect the places of storage for explosive materials of an applicant for a limited permit or, in the case of a holder of a limited permit, at the time of renewal of such permit. (c) The provisions of paragraph (b) of this section do not apply to an applicant for the renewal of a limited permit if an ATF officer has, within the preceding 3 years, verified by inspection that the applicant's place of storage for explosive materials meets the requirements of subpart K of this part. [ATF No. 1, 68 FR 13781, Mar. 20, 2003] Upon receipt of written request from any State or any political subdivision of a State, the regional director (compliance) may make available to the State or political subdivision any information which the regional director (compliance) may obtain under the Act with respect to the identification of persons within the State or political subdivision, who have purchased or received explosive materials, together with a description of the explosive materials. (a) General. No person, other than a licensee or permittee knowingly may transport, ship, cause to be transported, or receive any explosive materials: Provided, That the provisions of this paragraph (a) do not apply to the lawful purchase by a nonlicensee or nonpermittee of commercially manufactured black powder in quantities not to exceed 50 pounds, if the black powder is intended to be used solely for sporting, recreational, or cultural purposes in antique firearms as defined in 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(16), or in antique devices as exempted from the term “destructive device” in 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(4). (b) Holders of a limited permit. No person who is a holder of a limited permit may— (1) Transport, ship, cause to be transported, or receive in interstate or foreign commerce any explosive materials; (2) Receive explosive materials from a licensee or permittee, whose premises are located outside the State of residence of the limited permit holder; or (3) Receive explosive materials on more than 6 separate occasions, during the period of the permit, from one or more licensees or permittees whose premises are located within the State of residence of the limited permit holder. (See §555.105(b) for the definition of “6 separate occasions.”) (c) Possession by prohibited persons. No person may ship or transport any explosive material in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce or receive or possess any explosive materials which have been shipped or transported in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce who: (1) Is under indictment or information for, or who has been convicted in any court of, a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year; (2) Is a fugitive from justice; (3) Is an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802) and §555.11); (4) Has been adjudicated as a mental defective or has been committed to a mental institution; (5) Is an alien, other than an alien who— (i) Is lawfully admitted for permanent residence (as that term is defined in section 101(a)(20) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101)); or (ii) Is in lawful nonimmigrant status, is a refugee admitted under section 207 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1157), or is in asylum status under section 208 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1158), and— (A) Is a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government, as determined by the Attorney General in consultation with the Secretary of State, entering the United States on official law enforcement business, and the shipping, transporting, possession, or receipt of explosive materials is in furtherance of this official law enforcement business; (B) Is a person having the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a corporation, partnership, or association licensed pursuant to section 843(a) of the Act, and the shipping, transporting, possession, or receipt of explosive materials is in furtherance of such power; (C) Is a member of a North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) or other friendly foreign military force, as determined by the Attorney General in consultation with the Secretary of Defense, (whether or not admitted in a nonimmigrant status) who is present in the United States under military orders for training or other military purpose authorized by the United States, and the shipping, transporting, possession, or receipt of explosive materials is in furtherance of the military purpose; or (D) Is lawfully present in the United States in cooperation with the Director of Central Intelligence, and the shipment, transportation, receipt, or possession of the explosive materials is in furtherance of such cooperation; (6) Has been discharged from the armed forces under dishonorable conditions; or (7) Having been a citizen of the United States, has renounced citizenship. (d) Distribution to prohibited persons. No person may knowingly distribute explosive materials to any individual who: (1) Is under twenty-one years of age; (2) Is under indictment or information for, or who has been convicted in any court of, a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year; (3) Is a fugitive from justice; (4) Is an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802) and §555.11); (5) Has been adjudicated as a mental defective or has been committed to a mental institution; (6) Is an alien, other than an alien who— (i) Is lawfully admitted for permanent residence (as that term is defined in section 101(a)(20) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101)); or (ii) Is in lawful nonimmigrant status, is a refugee admitted under section 207 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1157), or is in asylum status under section 208 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1158), and— (A) Is a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government, as determined by the Attorney General in consultation with the Secretary of State, entering the United States on official law enforcement business, and the shipping, transporting, possession, or receipt of explosive materials is in furtherance of this official law enforcement business; (B) Is a person having the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a corporation, partnership, or association licensed pursuant to section 843(a) of the Act, and the shipping, transporting, possession, or receipt of explosive materials is in furtherance of such power; (C) Is a member of a North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) or other friendly foreign military force, as determined by the Attorney General in consultation with the Secretary of Defense, (whether or not admitted in a nonimmigrant status) who is present in the United States under military orders for training or other military purpose authorized by the United States, and the shipping, transporting, possession, or receipt of explosive materials is in furtherance of the military purpose; or (D) Is lawfully present in the United States in cooperation with the Director of Central Intelligence, and the shipment, transportation, receipt, or possession of the explosive materials is in furtherance of such cooperation; (7) Has been discharged from the armed forces under dishonorable conditions; or (8) Having been a citizen of the United States, has renounced citizenship. (e) See §555.180 for regulations concerning the prohibited manufacture, importation, exportation, shipment, transportation, receipt, transfer, or possession of plastic explosives that do not contain a detection agent. [ATF No. 1, 68 FR 13781, Mar. 20, 2003] (a) No nonlicensee or nonpermittee may distribute any explosive materials to any other nonlicensee or nonpermittee who the distributor knows or who has reasonable cause to believe does not reside in the State in which the distributor resides. (b) The provisions of this section do not apply on and after May 24, 2003. [ATF No. 1, 68 FR 13782, Mar. 20, 2003] No person shall receive, conceal, transport, ship, store, barter, sell, or dispose of any stolen explosive materials knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that the explosive materials were stolen. No person shall store any explosive materials in a manner not in conformity with this part. (a) Any licensee or permittee who has knowledge of the theft or loss of any explosive materials from his stock shall, within 24 hours of discovery, report the theft or loss by telephoning 1–800–800–3855 (nationwide toll free number) and on ATF F 5400.5 (formerly Form 4712) in accordance with the instructions on the form. Theft or loss of any explosive materials shall also be reported to appropriate local authorities. (b) Any other person, except a carrier of explosive materials, who has knowledge of the theft or loss of any explosive materials from his stock shall, within 24 hours of discovery, report the theft or loss by telephoning 1–800–800–3855 (nationwide toll free number) and in writing to the nearest ATF office. Theft or loss shall be reported to appropriate local authorities. (c) Reports of theft or loss of explosive materials under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must include the following information, if known: (1) The manufacturer or brand name. (2) The manufacturer's marks of identification (date and shift code). (3) Quantity (applicable quantity units, such as pounds of explosives, number of detonators, etc.). (4) Description (dynamite, blasting agents, detonators, etc.) and United Nations (UN) identification number, hazard division number, and classification letter, e.g., 1.1D, as classified by the U.S. Department of Transportation at 49 CFR 172.101 and 173.52. (5) Size (length and diameter). (d) A carrier of explosive materials who has knowledge of the theft or loss of any explosive materials shall, within 24 hours of discovery, report the theft or loss by telephoning 1–800–800–3855 (nationwide toll free number). Theft or loss shall also be reported to appropriate local authorities. Reports of theft or loss of explosive materials by carriers shall include the following information, if known: (1) The manufacturer or brand name. (2) Quantity (applicable quantity units, such as pounds of explosives, number of detonators, etc.). (3) Description (United Nations (UN) identification number, hazard division number, and classification letter, e.g., 1.1D) as classified by the U.S. Department of Transportation at 49 CFR 172.101 and 173.52. [T.D. ATF–87, 46 FR 40384, Aug. 7, 1981, as amended by T.D. ATF–400, 63 FR 45002, Aug. 24, 1998] Any ATF officer may inspect the site of any accident or fire in which there is reason to believe that explosive materials were involved. Any ATF officer may enter into or upon any property where explosive materials have been used, are suspected of having been used, or have been found in an otherwise unauthorized location. The Director may exempt certain explosive actuated devices, explosive actuated tools, or similar devices from the requirements of this part. A person who desires to obtain an exemption under this section for any special explosive device, which as designed does not constitute a public safety or security hazard, shall submit a written request to the Director. Each request shall be executed under the penalties of perjury and contain a complete and accurate description of the device, the name and address of the manufacturer or importer, the purpose of and use for which it is intended, and any photographs, diagrams, or drawings as may be necessary to enable the Director to make a determination. The Director may require that a sample of the device be submitted for examination and evaluation. If it is not possible to submit the device, the person requesting the exemption shall advise the Director and designate the place where the device will be available for examination and evaluation. (a) Background checks. (1) If the Director receives from a licensee or permittee the names and appropriate identifying information of responsible persons and employees who will be authorized by the employer to possess explosive materials in the course of employment with the employer, the Director will conduct a background check in accordance with this section. (2) The Director will determine whether the responsible person or employee is one of the persons described in any paragraph of section 842(i) of the Act (see §555.26). In making such determination, the Director may take into account a letter or document issued under paragraph (a)(3) of this section. (3)(i) If the Director determines that the responsible person or the employee is not one of the persons described in any paragraph of section 842(i) of the Act (see §555.26), the Director will notify the employer in writing or electronically of the determination and issue, to the responsible person or employee, as the case may be, a letter of clearance which confirms the determination. (ii) If the Director determines that the responsible person or employee is one of the persons described in any paragraph of section 842(i) of the Act (see §555.26), ATF will notify the employer in writing or electronically of the determination and issue to the responsible person or the employee, as the case may be, a document that confirms the determination; explains the grounds for the determination; provides information on how the disability may be relieved; and explains how the determination may be appealed. The employer will retain the notification as part of his permanent records in accordance with §555.121. The employer will take immediate steps to remove the responsible person from his position directing the management or policies of the business or operations as they relate to explosive materials or, as the case may be, to remove the employee from a position requiring the possession of explosive materials. Also, if the employer has listed the employee as a person authorized to accept delivery of explosive materials, as specified in §555.103 or §555.105, the employer must remove the employee from such list and immediately, and in no event later than the second business day after such change, notify distributors of such change. (b) Appeals and correction of erroneous system information—(1) In general. A responsible person or employee may challenge the adverse determination set out in the letter of denial, in writing and within 45 days of issuance of the determination, by directing his or her challenge to the basis for the adverse determination, or to the accuracy of the record upon which the adverse determination is based, to the Director. The appeal request must include appropriate documentation or record(s) establishing the legal and/or factual basis for the challenge. Any record or document of a court or other government entity or official furnished in support of an appeal must be certified by the court or other government entity or official as a true copy. In the case of an employee, or responsible person who did not submit fingerprints, such appeal must be accompanied by two properly completed FBI Forms FD–258 (fingerprint card). The Director will advise the individual in writing of his decision and the reasons for the decision. (2) Employees. The letter of denial, among other things, will advise an employee who elects to challenge an adverse determination to submit the fingerprint cards as described above. The employee also will be advised of the agency name and address that originated the record containing the information causing the adverse determination (“originating agency”). At that time, and where appropriate, an employee is encouraged to apply to the originating agency to challenge the accuracy of the record(s) upon which the denial is based. The originating agency may respond to the individual's application by addressing the individual's specific reasons for the challenge, and by indicating whether additional information or documents are required. If the record is corrected as a result of the application to the originating agency, the individual may so notify ATF which will, in turn, verify the record correction with the originating agency and take all necessary steps to contact the agency responsible for the record system and correct the record. The employee may provide to ATF additional and appropriate documentation or record(s) establishing the legal and/or factual basis for the challenge to ATF's decision to uphold the initial denial. If ATF does not receive such additional documentation or record(s) within 45 days of the date of the decision upholding the initial denial, ATF will close the appeal. (3) Responsible persons. The letter of denial, among other things, will advise a responsible person of the agency name and address which originated the record containing the information causing the adverse determination (“originating agency”). A responsible person who elects to challenge the adverse determination, where appropriate, is encouraged to apply to the originating agency to challenge the accuracy of the record(s) upon which the denial is based. The originating agency may respond to the individual's application by addressing the individual's specific reasons for the challenge, and by indicating whether additional information or documents are required. If the record is corrected as a result of the application to the originating agency, the individual may so notify ATF which will, in turn, verify the record correction with the originating agency and take all necessary steps to contact the agency responsible for the record system and correct the record. A responsible person may provide additional documentation or records as specified for employees in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. [ATF No. 1, 68 FR 13783, Mar. 20, 2003] When any Form 5400.30 is stolen, lost, or destroyed, the person losing possession will, upon discovery of the theft, loss, or destruction, immediately, but in all cases before 24 hours have elapsed since discovery, report the matter to the Director by telephoning 1–888–ATF-BOMB (nationwide toll free number). The report will explain in detail the circumstances of the theft, loss, or destruction and will include all known facts that may serve to identify the document. Upon receipt of the report, the Director will make such investigation as appears appropriate and may issue a duplicate document upon such conditions as the circumstances warrant. [ATF No. 1, 68 FR 13783, Mar. 20, 2003]
Title 27: Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms
PART 555—COMMERCE IN EXPLOSIVES
Subpart C—Administrative and Miscellaneous Provisions
§ 555.21 Forms prescribed.
§ 555.22 Alternate methods or procedures; emergency variations from requirements.
§ 555.23 List of explosive materials.
§ 555.24 Right of entry and examination.
§ 555.25 Disclosure of information.
§ 555.26 Prohibited shipment, transportation, receipt, possession, or distribution of explosive materials.
§ 555.27 Out-of-State disposition of explosive materials.
§ 555.28 Stolen explosive materials.
§ 555.29 Unlawful storage.
§ 555.30 Reporting theft or loss of explosive materials.
§ 555.31 Inspection of site accidents or fires; right of entry.
§ 555.32 Special explosive devices.
§ 555.33 Background checks and clearances (effective May 24, 2003).
§ 555.34 Replacement of stolen or lost ATF Form 5400.30 (Intrastate Purchase of Explosives Coupon (IPEC)).
